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I saw this story the other night and the only part that really got my attention was this guy filing the "avidavit" (pic below.) But if a mortgage company forecloses on a house and then goes bankrupt, I can just move in an own the house by "adverse possession" after x number of years? (That link is pretty instructive and even refers to an "affidavit of adverse possession.") I'm skeptical, though.
And I think our freeloading hero might have a tax problem. Won't the local taxing entities sell the property at auction for unpaid real estate taxes? And won't the buyer have title free and clear?
But, as I always say, if the file doesn't have an indictment in it, I'm not the guy to ask.
